Question on chord voice leading

So I understand that chord inversions refer to the bass and how inversion can utilize smooth voice leading. From a classical standpoint it makes sense, however is smooth voice leading often utilized in pop music, in keyboards? I notice in the book it says to use inversions sparingly, and when I look at other pop songs it seems like there is very little smooth voicing. Ex ( Jumping from a Cmaj to Fmaj in root position). Coming from a classical background I was always taught every genre uses smooth voice leading. Sometimes I’ll even see people voice chords with the 3rd in the top and then jump around in that chord position. Is it standard to see most chord voices and bass in root position in pop, unless used for color or effect?