Why does this progression make sense?

music theory
1

Hey guys, this is my first post on this forum.
Last night we were playing songs at a party with some friends, and we tried to pick up the progression by ear… but there was a chord we weren’t able to get. Eventually we searched for the chords online, and this is the progression:

I - ii - iii - vi - II - IV - V7 - I

My question is… why does the II chord make sense? Its not acting as a functional secondary dominant…

Thanks!

2

The II chord provides very smooth and chromatic voice leading into the IV chord and therefore functions as an extension of the predominant.

3

I’ll reiterate further->

In the key of C (given your example)

Cmajor > dminor > eminor > aminor > Dmajor > Fmajor
I - ii - iii - iv - II - IV

Change the scale to a different relative mode. What is relative to Cmajor? Aminor!

Cmajor > dminor > eminor > aminor > Dmajor > Fmajor
III - iv - v - i - IV - VI

If you look at it in the context of aminor, you can see the Dmajor is being borrowed from the dorian mode. This is very very very common!

4

Thanks guys! Makes sense both ways.
:smile: