What’s the distinction between the double tonic complex and polytonality/polymodality?
I don’t ever really feel like an expectation is subverted when V/vi IV comes up, actually. Picardy thirds work on me though. Could another possibility for V/vi IV that V/vi is a borrowed chord from harmonic minor with good voice leading to IV? It’d be the only wieldy chord that’s not already in natural minor, right?
“The scale is so named because it is a common foundation for harmonies (chords) used in a minor key.” and “it evolved primarily as a basis for chords” are also statements made on Wikipedia. “minor scale may refer to[…]the functional fusion of natural minor, harmonic minor, and melodic minor scales, as is used in Western classical music” as well, and that is what I was figuring you to reference with how you chose to represent key.
I have read the article on key before, and I got the same impression I did before when looking again, that the term feels somehow hollow as it’s explained in foggy conjecture. What I can gather is that it’s a label on the musical medium (or place more appropriate word here) for functional harmony, secondary harmony, and mode mixture in tonal music, but doesn’t specify why these are exclusive properties that Ionian or Aeolian can’t handle. Looking at the opposite, atonality, the definition is “not written in any key or mode” leaving me all the more flustered with the opacity on the topic. I will however give that book a chance in hopes it offers more concrete insight.
Thank you for the tip on retrogression, that will also be something I’ll explore.
And, just something out of the blue here - I’m curious about Neo-Riemannian Theory. Are you able to tell me anything about it, and do you know if I should be wary of any weakness with its methodology or whatnot before I commit to trying to figure out what in the world is going on there?
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